I do not know much about VOIP, VOIP phones or PBXs. I recently encountered an issue where I could not connect to the PBX with a Nortel i2004 phone after I migrated the phones from a Cisco 6509 to a Cisco 3560 series switch.
When the phones were connected to the 6509 switch they used Access VLAN 9 and they all worked fine. There was NOT an auxillary VLAN configured on the switch. The phones were not connected to PCs either. When I migrated to the Cisco 3560 I configured the ports the same way the 6509 was configured, without a Voice VLAN That was the way the 6509 was configured so i thought it would work. The phones got IP addresses form the DHCP server and talked to the PBX through the firewall but they got stuck trying to connect to the S1 server. I finally got the phones to work by configuring a random Voice VLAN. The phone did not use the Voice VLAN. They still used the original access VLAN but they were able to connected and make calls. My question is why does a Voice VLAN have to be configured on a 3560 switchport for the phones to work even though it was not being used? I am stumped and all of the googleing and sarching online has yielded no definative answer.
Thanks